Britain adopted the Gregorian Calendar on Thursday, 14 September 1752 and New Year's Day changed from March 25 to January 1 in 1752. Was the previous leap year four years before, i.e. 1747 (old Style)= 1748 New Style or 1748 (Old style)= 1749 New Style?

Fosse4

As Gregory supressed the dates between 5th and 15th of October, the year didn't change. New Year is a matter of conjecture between religions and faiths so the two questions asked don't correlate. The calculation of a leap year isn't affected by the change of calendar. Mar 24 02, 8:52 PM

Gnomon

Fosse4 is wrong in two respects. Firstly, although the dates he gives are correct for the Roman Catholic world, they do not apply to Britain. Britain didn't change until 1752. Up to that time, Britain had 25 March as the first day of the year, but I have been unable to determine whether before the change, the year number actually changed on 25 March. Was the day after 24 March 1740 called 25 March 1741, for example? It's a good question Michael, to which I unfortunately don't know the answer. Mar 24 02, 11:21 PM

Tabby Tom

Tabby Tom says: Further to Gnomon's post, the year numbering in 1752 changed on 1st January, even though the adjustment from the Julian to the Gregorian calendar did not take place till September. (See the Oxford Companion to English Literature - Appendix II - 'The Calendar'). The changes resulted from Lord Chesterfield's 'Act for Regulating the Commencement of the Year and for Correcting the Calendar now in Use'. The two changes are dsitinct: Scotland had adopted 1st January as the New year date in 1600 and Russia in 1700,although they continued to adhere to the Julian calendar. So, officially, the day after 31st December 1751 was 1st January 1752. The 'leap day' was 29th February 1752. The previous 'leap day' was officially, at that time, 29th February 1747, but is now universally referred to as 29th February 1748. Tue Mar 26 04:33:50 CST 2002 (Delete Entry) (Reposted to edit - McG) Apr 14 02, 5:51 PM