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    In 1936 King Edward VIII abdicated the throne to marry someone who was not British. But then Queen Elizabeth II married a non-British person, and what if Prince William married a lady who was not from Britain, would he have to abdicate to Prince Harry also?

    Question #36290. Asked by Bryce-.

    Valf

    The reason Edward abdicated, was because Wallace Simpson was a divorcee, and he wouldn't be allowed to be King if he had married her. Not because she was not British. The same could be said of Charles if he wished to marry Camilla.

    Jul 17 03, 1:48 PM
    mochyn

    Prince Charles is divorced but the rules governing the Royal Family have changed allowing Charles to marry Camilla and rule together as King and Queen. Charles would make a great king and he would have the support of a woman who loves him and whom he loves. By being King, Charles would also give William breathing space. The biggest drawback to a successful transition of sovereignty is the British press whose love affair with Diana shows no signs of abating. Charles for King, YAY.

    Jul 17 03, 4:40 PM
    Linus_337

    Charles has made it clear that he will not decline the throne in favour of William, as he would view this as failing to fulfil his duty.

    If and when he accedes to the throne, it is thought that he will take the name King George VII rather than King Charles III.

    Jul 18 03, 4:26 PM
    mumby21

    Edward VII abdicated not because his wife-to-be was not British but because she had been divorced twice previously and both ex-husbands were living. Since the Church of England taught that although there is divorce, the King being the head of the Church of England (Defender of the Faith) he could not remain as king if he married a divorced woman.

    Jul 20 03, 5:59 AM

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