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# Is it possible for the value of the coefficient of friction to be 1?

Question #47618. Asked by shawn888. (May 19 04 11:35 PM)

woody156

No. That would mean a completely frictionless surface, which is impossible, at least in theory. I asked a question last week, "Why is ice slippery?", I was waiting for someone to answer, "Because it has a low coefficient of friction". While ice has a coefficient of friction close to one, nothing is quite so slippery to be at one.

 May 20 04, 7:11 AM
kevinatilusa

Frictionless means it has a coefficient close to 0, not 1.

A coefficient of 1 would be something like a square block sitting on a plane which doesn't slide if the plane is inclined exactly 45 degrees, but would slide on any larger angle. This seems high, but I see no reason why it couldn't occur in theory.

 May 21 04, 1:07 AM
woody156

Quite right Kevin. Bit of a brain lock there.

 May 21 04, 5:43 AM

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