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    Is it possible for the value of the coefficient of friction to be 1?

    Question #47618. Asked by shawn888. (May 19 04 11:35 PM)


    woody156

    		No. That would mean a completely frictionless surface, which is impossible, at least in theory. I asked a question last week, "Why is ice slippery?", I was waiting for someone to answer, "Because it has a low coefficient of friction". While ice has a coefficient of friction close to one, nothing is quite so slippery to be at one.

    May 20 04, 7:11 AM
    kevinatilusa

    		Frictionless means it has a coefficient close to 0, not 1.

    A coefficient of 1 would be something like a square block sitting on a plane which doesn't slide if the plane is inclined exactly 45 degrees, but would slide on any larger angle. This seems high, but I see no reason why it couldn't occur in theory.

    May 21 04, 1:07 AM
    woody156

    		Quite right Kevin. Bit of a brain lock there.

    May 21 04, 5:43 AM

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