|
|
Why is the first name Jesus more common in Hispanic countries than elsewhere?
Question
#51638. Asked by gmackematix. (Oct 12 04 8:00 PM)
|
Arpeggionist
|
Maybe as an old custom to define the Spanish people as Christians. Before the Americas were discovered Spain (which was the only Hispanic country) was under Muslim rule, and Muhammad would have been a more common name.
|
gmackematix
|
Looks like a sound theory to me, Arpy (or is it Peggy now?).
|
Arpeggionist
|
It's never been Peggy (speaking of names). The only time I ever allowed anyone to adress me by a woman's name was when I was making a prank call to Birmingham Alabama (LONG story, don't ask). The proper way to pronounce the sreenname is to stress the second-last syllable, thus identifying the name with the instrument. I've gone by many other nicknames (Cello, Fish, Soup-Nut Boy) for various reasons, so much that I am beginning to appreciate the sound of my real name (Y'hoshua).
|
Find something useful here? Please help us spread the word about FunTrivia. Recommend this page below!
|