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    Why are Hispanics refered to as Latin when the Latin language came from Rome in Italy which is nowhere near Spain?

    Question #53034. Asked by Buck540. (Dec 11 04 10:52 AM)


    jbean

    		Maybe because Spanish is a Romance Language, that is, based on Latin.

    Dec 11 04, 11:05 AM
    mibmob

    		The Romans annexed and conquered Spain after they conquered the Carthaginians who "owned" parts of Spain. Spanish is even more Latin-based than Italian! And Hispanics are so-called from the Latin for Spain which was Hispania (and included Portugal as well).

    Dec 11 04, 11:42 AM
    Flem-ish

    		This "Latin(o)" refers to Latin(o)-America, which is Spanish America + Brazil. In "South-America" the language of the original colonising nations was not pushed aside by French or English.
    French- or Italian-speakers in America are not called Latinos because for them there is no link with "Latin-America".
    The term "Hispanics" makes it clear that in this process the other South-American colonisers' language, Portuguese, tends to be overlooked.

    Dec 11 04, 11:59 AM

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