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In honor of the upcoming wedding, who can define the phrase, "morganatic marriage"?
Question
#56530. Asked by lanfranco. (Apr 07 05 1:48 PM)
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MrsAce
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It is defined to be a lawful and inseparable conjunction of a single man, of noble and illustrious birth, with a single woman of an inferior or plebeian station, upon this condition, that neither the wife nor children should partake of the title, arms, or dignity of the husband, nor succeed to his inheritance, but should have a certain allowance assigned to them by the morgantic contract.
http://www.lectlaw.com/def2/m143.htm
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Baloo55th
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And I don't think it is legal under English law. The Prince Regent is the only royal I can think of that had anything like that, and his relationship (with Mrs Fitzherbert?) was disregarded when he had to get properly married.
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lanfranco
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Oh, Baloo, you anticipated my next question. But yes, MrsAce is right. And Charles' and Camilla's marriage will not be morganatic. Not that it really matters.
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