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    Was it ever illegal in the UK for unmarried heterosexual couples to share the same hotel room? If so, when did it become legal?

    Question #57339. Asked by anselm.

    bloomsby

    I don't _know_ the answer. However, I'd make these observations. English law has generally refrained from prohibiting or otherwise criminalizing adultery and fornication, provided that (1) the monarch's eldest daughter isn't involved (wow) and (2) that the woman has reached the age of consent. This omission didn't escape the notice of the Barebones Parliament of 1653, but its laws against these sins were held up as a prize example of one of the silliest measures passed by that parliament and were repealed in the 1660s. Just a postscript: the situation might be different if the landord, knowing that the couple is unmarried, were to charge more than the standard rate for the room, but this would be hard to prove.

    May 23 05, 8:05 PM
    gmackematix

    No. It was merely one of Basil Fawlty's rules for guests.
    Is that what inspired the question?

    May 23 05, 8:18 PM
    bloomsby

    Sounds to me like a yay!



    May 23 05, 8:29 PM

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