Had Scotland already been "joined to England" at the time Shakespeare wrote John of Gaunt's famous speech about "this sceptered isle", "this England" (Richard II, Act Two, Scene One) or is this mere geographical negligence?

TabbyTom

The first recorded performance of "Richard II" seems to have been a private one at the house of Sir Edward Hoby MP, on December 9, 1595, and the play was published in a First Quarto in 1597, about six years before the union of the English and Scottish crowns (and, of course, more than a century before full political union). So it looks like geographical negligence of a kind that's still very common among us English. English people today, discussing our relationship with continental Europe, are prone to come out with statements like "England has always been an island." Jun 11 05, 12:29 AM

Flem-ish

Most interesting answer. Those given to bardolatry might possibly prefer the euphemism "poetical licence"! Jun 11 05, 1:37 AM

tnrees

Since anglo saxon times English monarchs have been claiming overlordship of Scotland. Also James VI was widely regarded as the heir to the throne so it could just have been anticipation. Jun 11 05, 6:34 AM