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When did the French start giving ordinal numbers to their kings, pushing back the first Louis to Clovis?
Question
#57844. Asked by bloomsby. (Jun 20 05 4:52 PM)
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lanfranco
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I'm certain that various scholars could answer this question precisely, since it requires familiarity with very early Gallo-Latin manuscripts and obscure treatises. The Internet is not that helpful on a subject like this.
The list below says that Charlemagne is generally described at "Charles I," and his son, Louis the Pious, as Louis I. But when were these numerical designations first used? Haven't the slightest.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_French_monarchs
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bloomsby
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Many thanks. The link tends to confirm my suspicion that attempts to push the history of the French kingdom back to the Merovingian Frankish dynasty are essentially propaganda. It seems to be an example of deliberate "over-historicization" rather than serious history. :)
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lanfranco
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Well, to be fair, the French themselves have been arguing for several years over this very topic -- Gauls, Merovingians, or Capetians? -- and they don't all agree. There was an interesting "New Yorker" article on the subject 5 or 6 years ago ("Clovis: the First Frenchman," or something like that).
But, yes, it seems to be an argument involving patriotic myth rather than factual history.
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bloomsby
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It occurs to me that as far as the numbering goes, a good catalogue of French coins that gives full inscriptions might be a useful starting- point.
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