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What do you get when you multiply all the real numbers? (kind of a trick question)
Question
#61171. Asked by ogicu8abruok. (Dec 22 05 3:38 PM)
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TabbyTom
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Zero is a real number, so the product of all the real numbers is zero.
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ogicu8abruok
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Ahh, but, if anyone out there is versed in the various forms of indeterminate limits would see why "zero" is not the answer, because this is a limit of type 0 times infinity. You could also think of pairing each number n with another real number, specifically 1/n, except zero, but then you have 1*0, so I'm looking for a mathematician who really knows his stuff to tell me what it really is.
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gmackematix
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Given that the reals are not countable, I would dispute whether such a product has any meaning.
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peasypod
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Indeterminatly thinking about this would lead one to the l'Hopital, yes?
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ogicu8abruok
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So, are you saying that a more interesting question would be what is the product of all the integers?
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peasypod
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I'm saying to put the Rule of l'Hopital into action...
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ogicu8abruok
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I was responding to gmackematix. And I wouldn't use l'Hopital's rule, because I don't even know if it's correct to conceive of it as a limit. Though that was clever.
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kevinom
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if you are multiplying and not performing integration l'hopitals rule would not apply
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