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    What do you get when you multiply all the real numbers? (kind of a trick question)

    Question #61171. Asked by ogicu8abruok. (Dec 22 05 3:38 PM)


    bojjie

    Zero

    Dec 22 05, 5:18 PM
    TabbyTom

    Zero is a real number, so the product of all the real numbers is zero.

    Dec 22 05, 5:18 PM
    ogicu8abruok

    Ahh, but, if anyone out there is versed in the various forms of indeterminate limits would see why "zero" is not the answer, because this is a limit of type 0 times infinity. You could also think of pairing each number n with another real number, specifically 1/n, except zero, but then you have 1*0, so I'm looking for a mathematician who really knows his stuff to tell me what it really is.

    Dec 22 05, 6:37 PM
    gmackematix

    Given that the reals are not countable, I would dispute whether such a product has any meaning.

    Dec 22 05, 7:49 PM
    peasypod

    Indeterminatly thinking about this would lead one to the l'Hopital, yes?

    Dec 22 05, 9:49 PM
    ogicu8abruok

    So, are you saying that a more interesting question would be what is the product of all the integers?

    Dec 25 05, 9:55 AM
    peasypod

    I'm saying to put the Rule of l'Hopital into action...

    Dec 25 05, 4:04 PM
    ogicu8abruok

    I was responding to gmackematix. And I wouldn't use l'Hopital's rule, because I don't even know if it's correct to conceive of it as a limit. Though that was clever.

    Dec 25 05, 9:35 PM
    kevinom

    if you are multiplying and not performing integration l'hopitals rule would not apply

    Jan 06 06, 7:15 AM


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