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I have often read that in the Middle Ages in Britain (and elsewhere), New Year was celebrated on March 25th. Does this mean that the number of the year actually changed on that date, and if not, was there another name given to the date on which the year number actually changed?
Question
#61344. Asked by gmackematix.
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peasypod
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This all came from the Feast of the Annunciation. (I like 'Lady Day' better)
The Annunciation Style dating concept was used in Britain until January 1, 1752, except Scotland which changed to Circumcision Style dating on 1 January 1600. The rest of Great Britain changed to Circumcision Style (the mind boggles..) on the 1 January preceding the conversion from the Julian calendar to the Gregorian calendar on the third-14th of September 1752.
The calendar act of 1751 explains all this in detail.
http://www.adsb.co.uk/date_and_time/calendar_reform_1752/
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gmackematix
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Right, so February 1749 in our calendar was February 1748 in Britain and hence had 29 days in it. Weird.
I suppose Catholic Europe changed New Year's Day to Jan 1st when Oct 5th 1582 became October 15th 1582, hence the dual feeling of when the day should be in common usage prior to 1752 in Britain.
I gathered that on the eighth day Christ was circumcised according to Matthew (or was it Luke?) but it seems a little appropriate that this should mark a time of change.
Still, it's also a bit ironic that a change brought about by Catholics should make the pagan origins of the name "January" more appropriate once again.
Anyway, Happy Feast of the Circumcision peasy and all others at AFT!
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