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    When you need to add an apostrophe "s" ('s) to something to make it possessive, but it already ends in an "s", is it correct to only add an apostrophe, or do you need the second "s" too? (Example: Jesus' or Jesus's?)

    Question #66128. Asked by luvtheheaven. (May 24 06 2:01 PM)


    Jubal

    		No second "s" needed. See the book "Eats, Shoots, and Leaves" for further great grammar tips.

    May 24 06, 2:06 PM
    Baloo55th

    		More modern usage is to add 's (Jesus's), older fashioned usage is to add ' (Jesus'). Adding the s avoids problems with single quote marks. Not necessary, as Jubal says, but an aid to quicker understanding. Also, there is a reflection in pronunciation - people say Jesuses now, where they said Jesus then.

    May 24 06, 3:45 PM
    zbeckabee

    		We now have a Society that protects Apostrophes... ARGH!!!!!!!!! Enter site at your own risk:

    http://www.apostrophe.fsnet.co.uk/

    May 24 06, 4:28 PM
    NathaNsc

    		Both are acceptable. But I've been taught to use the extra s, except for Biblical names, ancient names, etc.

    So it would be James's, Jesus', Socrates'.

    May 24 06, 5:28 PM

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