By what authority did James I of England and James VI of Scotland call himself 'King of Great Britain' (for example, on English coins) and what was the status of this designation?

gdec1

Upon the death of Elizabeth I in 1603, under the terms of Henry's will, the Crown should have passed to Lady Anne Stanley, a descendant of Henry VIII's sister Mary Tudor. (Elizabeth's second cousin once-removed, Viscount Beauchamp, son of Lady Catherine Grey, was more senior, but he was considered illegitimate because his parents' marriage was annulled.) As neither Beauchamp nor Lady Anne nor any other was powerful enough to defend a claim, an Accession Council met and proclaimed James King of England. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_I_of_England Aug 18 06, 6:58 AM

bloomsby

Thanks. I wasn't asking by what authority he became King of England, but how he managed to give himself the title King of **Great Britain** when, politically, there was no such country. The Act of Union that united England and Scotland dates from 1707. Aug 18 06, 1:25 PM

Baloo55th

There was no such country, and still isn't. Great Britain is an island not a country. The nation that inhabits it is the United Kingdom of Great Britain, but in James's day the union hadn't happened. He was king of both the kingdoms in the island, so by his own authority he could call himself king of the island. Aug 18 06, 2:18 PM

bloomsby

I still find it odd. Monarchs usually describe themselves of as kings or queens of kingdoms with an acknowledged political existence, not as kings and queens of purely geographical entities. Aug 19 06, 2:33 PM