Register - Log In


FunTrivia Homepage



  • New Questions

  • Unanswered


  • Post a Question
  • Goto Qn #





    Archives

    When and why did the Romans stop speaking Latin and start speaking Italian?

    Question #84778. Asked by Timetheny. (Aug 21 07 6:21 AM)


    lanfranco

    This was a very gradual process involving the evolution of the Italian language, over the course of centuries, from the various versions of Vulgar Latin spoken by ordinary people under the Empire as differentiated from the Classical Latin used in official writings and literary works. Along about the 8th and 9th centuries, written versions of Italian (and other Romance languages) begin to appear, but they would have been spoken before then. Each region developed its own dialect, and the Standard Italian we know today developed from the Tuscan version as spoken in the 14th century, when Dante was writing.




    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vulgar_Latin

    Aug 21 07, 7:29 AM
    BungeeAZ

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Germanic_peoples

    During the Germanic Invasions of the Roman Empire, the invaders conquered the lands and then assimilated into their new environment. They adopted the dialects of the locals (Latin), and made it their own with their flavor from their tribes.

    This is how Latin broke out into it's various dialects of French, Spanish, Portuguese, and Italian.

    English is actually a combination of two Germanic groups, the Angles and the Saxons, which is why English speaking people trace back to Anglo-Saxon, which settled in England and drove out the Britons. Eventually Anglo-Saxon got bastardized and shortened to Angloland (England).

    Aug 21 07, 7:57 AM
    darkpresence

    In Florence, I found Dante is absolutely worshipped and is credited with inventing the Italian language.
    http://www.masterfilmsproductions.com/index-4.html
    However, it seems more correct to say he standardised it.
    http://www.italylink.com/woi/language/index.html

    Aug 21 07, 1:29 PM
    Baloo55th

    In practical terms, the Italian language IS Latin. Modern Latin. It derives in a straight line from the Latin of the people, not the Latin of the orators and poets (the 'Classic' Latin taught in schools and from which Church Latin and Scientific Latin come. Italian comes from a much lower level of Latin, but a more real one. The Roman people didn't speak like Cicero and Co. They tended to use different words - cattus not felis, caballo not equus and so on. And the grammar was different. Far more positional - like modern Romance languages - and with the use of ille (illa, illud) as a sort of definite article and probably the use of pronouns with the verb (as do modern Romance languages) not the pared down minimalism of the orators and writers. As to why, languages do change. The circumstances of the speakers change, and new situations arise requiring new words. Grammar tends to simplify - I've never been quite sure how it got so darned complicated in some cases to begin with - and borrowings occur from neighbours, invaders and conquered people. Fashion plays a part too.

    Aug 21 07, 1:59 PM


    Find something useful here? Please help us spread the word about FunTrivia. Recommend this page below!


    Sign up to see all responses!

    Create a Free ID instantly to see all recent responses, post your own follow-ups or questions, and access over 1,000,000 trivia questions!

    Choose a User Name:
    Your Email Address:
    Choose a Password:

    I agree by the terms outlined in FunTrivia's Conditions of Use





    Other Similar Questions & Answers


    Why do certain regions of countries such as China or the US develop accents? If a country is speaking the same language, how does one area start speaking the language slightly differently over time? Is it possible for a large country to not develop any particular accents?

    If you are speaking Portuguese, which two countries would claim you are speaking their national language?

    Depending on which English speaking country one resides, this item varies its physical state from a solid to a liquid to a powder. Its spelling differs from one nation to another, but etymologically speaking they all originate from Persia. What is it, and what mode of transport does it have connotations with in Cockney slang?

    Suggested Related FunTrivia Quizzes - 90,000 currently online

    1 The Romans
    Just a selection of bits of knowledge - pretty hard for an uneducated barbarian I would imagine!
    Roman History Average
    10 Q
    trajancaesar
    Jul 10 07
    1602 plays
    2 Romans
    This quiz is based on the book of Romans, a New Testament Book in the Bible. The King James Version of the Holy Bible was used in making this quiz.
    Romans Average
    10 Q
    Ilona_Ritter
    Nov 02 09
    567 plays
    3 Stop!
    You probably count the exclamation mark (Emma) as a dear friend in your writing, but how well do you really know her? Do you know where she comes from or all the things she gets up to? Now might just be the time to stop and find out.
    Grammatical and Lexical Items Average
    10 Q
    glendathecat
    Nov 21 09
    558 plays




    "Ask FunTrivia" is for entertainment purposes only, and answers offered are unverified and unchecked by FunTrivia. We cannot guarantee the accuracy or veracity of ANY statement posted. Feel free to post an updated response if you feel that an answer is inadequate or incorrect. Please thoroughly research items where accuracy is important to you using multiple reliable sources. By accessing our website, you agree to be bound by our terms of service.