Why do people from Spain speak with a lisp and is it true that a king of theirs spoke with a lisp and that is why they now speak with a lisp?
#85821. Asked by mhinterpreter. (Sep 14 07 12:11 AM)
Thith ith a myth.
"Castilian Spanish" includes the sibilant /s/ sound. The supposed "lisp" is the proper pronunciation of the /th/ sound for both the "z" in every case and the "c" when followed by "e" or "i". ("S" sometimes has a /z/ sound, but that's another story.) It is more logical than the American Spanish way of pronouncing all those letters the same, and should aid in correct spelling. (I've found, however, that misspelling is quite universal.)
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