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I'm doing Fourier series in class. I know that cos(nπ)=(-1)ⁿ and sin(nπ)=0, but today I came across the term cos(nπ/2) for n={0,1,2...}. What is this equivalent to?

Question #99495. Asked by redsoxfan325.

Related Trivia Topics: Linguistics  
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looney_tunes star
Answer has 11 votes
looney_tunes star
19 year member
3289 replies avatar

Answer has 11 votes.
cos (n*pi/2) is equal to 0 for all values of n. The link uses degrees as the angle measure, but 90 degrees is the same angle as pi/2 radians, and 270 degrees is the same as 3*pi/2 radians. Both have a cosine of 0. On a unit circle, the points referred to are on the Y-axis, and have an X-coordinate of 0. As the value of n in the expression goes up, the point travels around the circle over and over, always being on the X-axis, so the value of cosine is always 0.

link http://www.easycalculation.com/trigonometry/trigonometry-tables.php

Sep 17 2008, 7:42 PM
redsoxfan325 star
Answer has 16 votes
Currently Best Answer
redsoxfan325 star
17 year member
105 replies

Answer has 16 votes.

Currently voted the best answer.
Not when n is even. When n is 2, for instance, it's cos(pi) which is -1, and when n is 4, it's cos(2*pi) which is 1. It's only zero when n is odd, and when n is even it alternates between 1 and -1. I'm looking for an expression (not involving sine or cosine) that sums this up.

Got it. It's (1/2)(1+(-1)?)(-1)^(n/2).

Plugging in n={0,1,2,3...} will give, {1,0,-1,0,1,0,-1...} which is what I needed.

Sep 17 2008, 10:41 PM
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